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Well, if you extract the cap rate out of the market, you aren't making any such assumptions. The market does--right or wrong, those are the assumptions market participants make.What happens in direct cap – whether you realize it or not - is that you forecast that subject and comps have equal futures, that they both have income streams of the same durability, safety and growth pattern.
Whether you want to call them assumptions or forecasts, market extraction doesn't mean they aren't there. For example, you comp is a four-year old five-unit that sold at a GRM of 6. Subject is also a five unit, with larger units, the same gross, but is 30 years old and has twice as much current maintenance expense. If subject worth the same, 6 times rent, as the comp? If not, why not? And why is this "sticky?"Jim Plante wrote:Well, if you extract the cap rate out of the market, you aren't making any such assumptions. The market does--right or wrong, those are the assumptions market participants make.What happens in direct cap – whether you realize it or not - is that you forecast that subject and comps have equal futures, that they both have income streams of the same durability, safety and growth pattern.
And that was the distinction I was trying to draw: In direct cap, (with extracted rates) the market does its own forecasting. In yield cap, the appraiser makes that forecast; in so doing, a certain measure of bias can creep in.
GRM is even more so.Direct cap is just a thumbnail measure in a larger model of property performance
LOLOL! You don't necessarily suck at it, you're just plowing really hard ground: my head :)This thread is a good example of how I know I suck at teaching appraising.
Pina Colada wrote:This thread is a good example of how I know I suck at teaching appraising.
I was going to use Edd Gillespe, but someone took that one already.Pina Colada???? That is imaginative.
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