As far as I remember it does. I can't find my stinkin' definition for some reason.[/quote]As for "fair market value", doesn't it leave off exposure?
| Welcome | |
|---|---|
| Welcome to Appraisers' Free Forum You are currently viewing our boards as a guest, which gives you limited access to view most discussions and access our other features. By joining our free community, you will have access to post topics, communicate privately with other members (PM), respond to polls, upload content, and access many other special features. Registration is fast, simple, and absolutely free, so please, <a href="/profile.php?mode=register">join our community today</a>! |
|
As far as I remember it does. I can't find my stinkin' definition for some reason.[/quote]As for "fair market value", doesn't it leave off exposure?
[/quote]Jim Plante wrote:As far as I remember it does. I can't find my stinkin' definition for some reason.As for "fair market value", doesn't it leave off exposure?
Fair Value Defined
Fair value is the price that would be received to sell an asset or paid to transfer a liability in an orderly transaction between market participants at the measurement date. (footnote #1)
The Financial Accounting Standards Board (FASB) Statement No. 157 has 158 pages, therefore, complete description is impossible in this document. However, most significantly, the statement says:
“A fair value measurement assumes that the asset or liability is exchanged in an orderly transaction between market participants to sell the asset or transfer the liability at the measurement date. An orderly transaction is a transaction that assumes exposure to the market for a period prior to the measurement date to allow for marketing activities that are usual and customary for transactions involving such assets or liabilities; it is not a forced transaction (for example, a forced liquidation or distress sale). The transaction to sell the asset or transfer the liability is a hypothetical transaction at the measurement date, considered from the perspective of a market participant that holds the asset or owes the liability. Therefore, the objective of a fair value measurement is to determine the price that would be received to sell the asset or paid to transfer the liability at the measurement date (an exit price). (footnote #2)”
The definition includes the following logical assumptions about market participants, that they are:
a. Independent of the reporting entity; that is, the are not related parties
b. Knowledgeable, having a reasonable understanding about the asset or liability and the transaction based on all available information, including information that might be obtained through due diligence efforts that are usual and customary
c. Able to transact for the asset or liability
d. Willing to transact for the asset or liability; that is, they are motivated but not forced or otherwise compelled to do so. (footnote #3)
What this means is that the definition assumes the principal or most advantageous market and assumes that the buyer and seller are typically motivated. It also assumes that both parties are well informed or well advised, and acting in what they consider their best interests. In other words it is an orderly, cash equivalent sale, uninfluenced by special conditions.
I would agree that definition is the most appropraite. However, you might get an argument on the IRS being an intended user.Steve, thanks for posting that one. But for estate appraisals where IRS is an intended user, and the report will be used to help calculate the tax, you want to use the IRS's definition of "Fair Market Value,"
How so? The client intends to let them use it. Am I missing something subtle again?...you might get an argument on the IRS being an intended user.
Don't know if its subtle or obvious, what are they using it for?Jim Plante wrote:How so? The client intends to let them use it. Am I missing something subtle again?...you might get an argument on the IRS being an intended user.
Pina Colada wrote:Related question: When you appraise for a bank, are the FDIC, OCC and OTS intended users?
Nope. They may see the report, but none of those entities will be making a mortgage lending decision with it, which is the intended use for a mortgage appraisal. They may check for the presence of an appraisal, and check the value opinion to be sure it complies with whatever rates/ratios apply, but they won't be using the report for its intended use.Piña wrote:Related question: When you appraise for a bank, are the FDIC, OCC and OTS intended users?
Jim Plante wrote:Nope. They may see the report, but none of those entities will be making a mortgage lending decision with it, which is the intended use for a mortgage appraisal. They may check for the presence of an appraisal, and check the value opinion to be sure it complies with whatever rates/ratios apply, but they won't be using the report for its intended use.
It's possible. However, I used to prepare tax returns and never include an appraisal report with the return. I also have declared charitable deductions, like the "value" of old t-shirts to the salvantion army. Never included an appraisal report. Although it might be something they look for in an audit (kind of like the federal bank regulators). You might do an appraisal for a property owner who thinks he's overassessed, that doesn't automatically make the assessor an intended user either.In contrast, IRS will actually use the report, check the data, examine the reasonableness of the value conclusions, and base tax decisions on the contents of the report.
AND, do you believe them?What does the client (or his agent) tell you he wants to do with the report?
Return to Estates, Partial Interests, etc.
Users browsing this forum: No registered users and 0 guests