by Steve Owen on Tue May 13, 2008 4:12 pm
Yes. Most definitely. If something is at one level and then at a later time it is at a lower level it can be said to be in decline. It doesn't need to be compared to anything else other than its prior level. I don't believe that anyone would argue that when you at at the top of the chain lift on the Timberwolf Roller Coaster you are getting ready to decline. Of course, compared to the galaxy as a whole you might be found to be going up. You don't have to compare it to that, though... you only have to compare where you are now to some prior, reasonably drawn, time period.
Of course, there are other factors, widely accepted, that can lead to referring to a market as being in decline. For example, in typical analysis, if an active inventory of more than six months of properties on market exists, it is often considered a sign of a declining market. Another example is increasing foreclosures and REO sales competition... I have heard of appraisers determining that their market was in decline from looking at that data alone. And, last but not least, there is the famous "numbers of sales" and average DOM figures. However, if I saw that kind of data, say 8 months worth of inventory combined with a few percent more REO's and short sales than the prior year, and 210 average DOM compared with only 180 the year before, and a few fewer sales than the period before, but still saw prices increasing compared to the most recent quarter, half-year, and year, I would not call that a "declining" market. In my opinion, when considering whether a market is in decline, price is king.
I haven't a particle of confidence in a man who has no redeeming petty vices.
- Mark Twain, a Biography